I am trying to understand a case scenario where a Pakistan based ISP (Multinet Pakistan Pvt. Ltd.) AS9260 is being allocated and originating certain addresses which are officially delegated to Indian operator (though whois record reflects Pakistan).
Example pool which shows this behaviour:
202.141.224.0/19 (visible in routing table, originated by AS9260)
Here the allocated country is India. Is this is a case of IP address transfer? Or a case where APNIC might have allocated it to an Indian network back in 2002 and later pool was returned and allocated to this network in Pakistan? Many tools which try to map prefixes to the country based on the RIR data will map/assume this prefix to be belonging to India which certainly not seem to be the case here.